[2025-November-New]Braindump2go XSIAM-Analyst Dumps with PDF and VCE Free[Q1-Q30]

2025/November Latest Braindump2go XSIAM-Analyst Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go XSIAM-Analyst Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 1
Which type of task can be used to create a decision tree in a playbook?

A. Sub-playbook
B. Job
C. Standard
D. Conditional

Answer: D
Explanation:
Conditional tasks let you define multiple outcome branches based on evaluated expressions, enabling decision-tree logic within a playbook.

QUESTION 2
A Cortex XSIAM analyst is investigating a security incident involving a workstation after having deployed a Cortex XDR agent for 45 days. The incident details include the Cortex XDR Analytics Alert “Uncommon remote scheduled task creation.”
Which response will mitigate the threat?

A. Revoke user access and conduct a user audit.
B. Allow list the processes to reduce alert noise.
C. Initiate the endpoint isolate action to contain the threat.
D. Prioritize blocking the source IP address to prevent further login attempts.

Answer: C
Explanation:
An “Uncommon remote scheduled task creation” suggests possible remote code execution or persistence. Isolating the affected endpoint immediately cuts it off from the network, stopping command-and-control or lateral movement while you investigate and remediate.

QUESTION 3
Which Cytool command will re-enable protection on an endpoint that has Cortex XDR agent protection paused?

A. cytool security enable
B. cytool service start
C. cytool runtime start
D. cytool protect enable

Answer: C
Explanation:
cytool runtime start resumes the Cortex XDR agent’s protection modules after they’ve been paused, re-enabling active enforcement on the endpoint.

QUESTION 4
A Cortex XSIAM analyst is reading a blog that references an unfamiliar critical zero-day vulnerability. This vulnerability has been weaponized, and there is evidence that it is being exploited by threat actors targeting a customer’s industry.
Where can the analyst go within Cortex XSIAM to learn more about this vulnerability and any potential impacts on the customer environment?

A. Threat Intel Management –> Sample Analysis
B. Attack Surface –> Threat Response Center
C. Attack Surface –> Attack Surface Rules
D. Threat Intel Management –> Indicator

Answer: B
Explanation:
The Threat Response Center centralizes emerging/zero-day vulnerability intelligence and correlates it with your environment, showing impact, affected assets, and recommended actions.

QUESTION 5
While investigating an alert, an analyst notices that a URL indicator has a related alert from a previous incident. The related alert has the same URL, but it resolved to a different IP address.
Which combination of two actions should the analyst take to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

A. Enrich the IP address indicator associated with the previous alert.
B. Expire the URL indicator.
C. Remove the relationship between the URL and the older IP address.
D. Enrich the URL indicator.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Removing the outdated URL-IP relationship clears the incorrect linkage, and enriching the URL indicator updates it with the current resolution and context so future alerts reflect the right association.

QUESTION 6
Which two actions will allow a security analyst to review updated commands from the core pack and interpret the results without altering the incident audit? (Choose two.)

A. Create a playbook with the commands and run it from within the War Room.
B. Run the core commands directly by typing them into the playground CLI.
C. Run the core commands directly from the Command and Scripts menu inside playground.
D. Run the core commands directly from the playground and invite other collaborators.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Executing core pack commands in the Playground — either by typing them in the CLI or selecting them from Command & Scripts — lets you test and view results without writing anything to an incident’s War Room audit trail.

QUESTION 7
Based on the artifact details in the image below, what can an analyst infer from the hexagon-shaped object with the exclamation mark (!) at the center?

A. The malicious artifact was injected.
B. The malware requires further analysis.
C. The WildFire verdict returned is “Low Confidence.”
D. The artifact verdict has changed from a previous state to “Malware.”

Answer: D
Explanation:
In Cortex XSIAM, the hexagon with an exclamation mark denotes a verdict change. Seeing it next to the artifact means its status was updated—now classified as Malware.

QUESTION 8
An analyst is responding to a critical incident involving a potential ransomware attack. The analyst immediately initiates full isolation on the compromised endpoint using Cortex XSIAM to prevent the malware from spreading across the network. However, the analyst now needs to collect additional forensic evidence from the isolated machine, including memory dumps and disk images, without reconnecting it to the network.
Which action will allow the analyst to collect the required forensic evidence while ensuring the endpoint remains fully isolated?

A. Using the management console to remotely run a predefined forensic playbook on the associated alert
B. Collecting the evidence manually through the agent by accessing the machine directly and running “Generate Support File”
C. Using the endpoint isolation feature to create a secure tunnel for evidence collection
D. Disabling full isolation temporarily to allow forensic tools to communicate with the endpoint

Answer: A
Explanation:
Full isolation still permits the Cortex agent to communicate with the console, so you can execute a forensic playbook (memory dump, disk/image collection actions) remotely without lifting isolation, keeping the endpoint contained while gathering evidence.

QUESTION 9
In addition to defining the Rule Name and Severity Level, which step or set of steps accurately reflects how an analyst should configure an indicator prevention rule before reviewing and saving it?

A. Filter and select file, IP address, and domain indicators.
B. Filter and select indicators of any type.
C. Select profiles for prevention.
Filter and select one or more file, IP address, and domain indicators.
D. Select profiles for prevention.
Filter and select one or more SHA256 and MD5 indicators.

Answer: C
Explanation:
An indicator prevention rule must bind supported indicator types (file hashes, IPs, domains) to specific prevention profiles so the agent can enforce blocking; after naming and setting severity, you choose the profiles and then pick those indicators before saving.

QUESTION 10
During an investigation, an analyst runs the reputation script for an indicator that is listed as Suspicious. The new reputation results display in the War Room as Malicious; however, the indicator verdict does not change.
What is the cause of this behavior?

A. The indicator is expired.
B. The indicator verdict was manually set to Suspicious.
C. The indicator has been excluded.
D. The indicator exists as an IOC rule.

Answer: B
Explanation:
A manually assigned verdict locks the indicator’s status; automated reputation updates (like the script result showing Malicious) do not override a manual verdict, so it remains Suspicious.

QUESTION 11
Which two statements apply to IOC rules? (Choose two.)

A. They can be uploaded using REST API.
B. They can have an expiration date of up to 180 days.
C. They can be used to detect a specific registry key.
D. They can be excluded using suppression rules but not alert exclusions.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
IOC rules can be bulk-uploaded through the REST API, and each rule can include an expiration date — capped at 180 days — to ensure stale indicators age out automatically.

QUESTION 12
What is the cause when alerts generated by a correlation rule are not creating an incident?

A. The rule does not have a drill-down query configured.
B. The rule is configured with alert severity below Medium.
C. The rule has alert suppression enabled.
D. The rule is using the preconfigured Cortex XSIAM alert field mapping.

Answer: C
Explanation:
When suppression is enabled on a correlation rule, any alerts it raises are marked as suppressed and are not used to open incidents. They appear as alerts but won’t trigger incident creation.

QUESTION 13
While investigating an incident on the Incident Overview page, an analyst notices that the playbook encountered an error. Upon playbook work plan review, it is determined that the error was caused by a timeout. However, the analyst does not have the necessary permissions to fix or create a new playbook.
Given the critical nature of the incident, what can the analyst do to ensure the playbook continues executing the remaining steps?

A. Navigate to the step where the error occurred and run the task again.
B. Pause the step with the error, thus automatically triggering the execution of the remaining steps.
C. Contact TAC to resolve the task error, as the playbook cannot proceed without it.
D. Clone the playbook, remove the faulty step, and run the new playbook to bypass the error.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Even without edit permissions, an analyst can manually rerun the failed task from the work plan. Successfully re-executing it clears the error so the playbook resumes and continues through the remaining steps.

QUESTION 14
Which configuration will ensure any alert involving a specific critical asset will always receive a score of 100?

A. A risk scoring policy for the critical asset
B. A user scoring rule for the critical asset
C. An asset as critical in Asset Inventory
D. SmartScore to apply the specific score to the critical asset

Answer: D
Explanation:
Defining a SmartScore rule lets you force any alert that involves that asset to be assigned a score of 100, overriding default scoring logic.

QUESTION 15
How would Incident Context be referenced in an alert War Room task or alert playbook task?

A. ${parentIncidentContext}
B. ${parentIncidentFields}
C. ${getParentIncidentContext}
D. ${getparentIncidentFields}

Answer: A
Explanation:
In alert-level tasks, the incident’s context is exposed via the parentIncidentContext object, so you reference it as ${parentIncidentContext} (and its keys as needed).

QUESTION 16
Which feature terminates a process during an investigation?

A. Response Center
B. Live Terminal
C. Exclusion
D. Restriction

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Response Center provides immediate endpoint actions — such as Terminate Process — so you can kill a malicious process during an investigation.

QUESTION 17
Which statement applies to a low-severity alert when a playbook trigger has been configured?

A. The alert playbook will automatically run when grouped in an incident.
B. The alert playbook can be manually run by an analyst.
C. The alert playbook will run if the severity increases to medium or higher.
D. Only low-severity analytics alerts will automatically run playbooks.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Even with a trigger defined, Cortex XSIAM does not auto-run playbooks for low-severity alerts; analysts must launch them manually.

QUESTION 18
A threat hunter discovers a true negative event from a zero-day exploit that is using privilege escalation to launch “Malware.pdf.exe.”
Which XQL query will always show the correct user context used to launch “Malware.pdf.exe”?

A. config case_sensitive = false | dataset = xdr_data | filter event_type = ENUM.PROCESS | filter action_process_image_name = “Malware.pdf.exe” | fields action_process_username
B. config case_sensitive = false | datamodel dataset = xdr_data | filter xdm.source.process.name = “Malware.pdf.exe” | fields xdm.target.user.username
C. config case_sensitive = false | dataset = xdr_data | filter event_type = ENUM.PROCESS | filter action_process_image_name = “Malware.pdf.exe” | fields causality_actor_effective_username
D. config case_sensitive = false | dataset = xdr_data | filter event_type = ENUM.PROCESS | filter action_process_image “Malware.pdf.exe” | fields actor_process_username

Answer: C
Explanation:
causality_actor_effective_username records the effective user after privilege changes, ensuring the query returns the actual user context that launched the process even when privilege escalation occurs.

QUESTION 19
Based on the image below, which two additional steps should a SOC analyst take to secure the endpoint? (Choose two.)

A. Block 192.168.1.199.
B. Reboot the machine.
C. Isolate the affected workstation.
D. Live Terminal into the workstation to verify.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Endpoint isolation immediately contains the host to stop any further activity, and using Live Terminal lets you verify and remediate on the machine (inspect processes, kill them, pull artifacts) without removing isolation.

QUESTION 20
During an investigation of an alert with a completed playbook, it is determined that no indicators exist from the email “[email protected]” in the Key Assets & Artifacts tab of the parent incident.
Which command will determine if Cortex XSIAM has been configured to extract indicators as expected?

A. !createNewIndicator value=”[email protected]”
B. !checkIndicatorExtraction text=”[email protected]”
C. !extractIndicators text=”[email protected]” auto-extract=inline
D. !emailvalue=”[email protected]”

Answer: B
Explanation:
checkIndicatorExtraction tests the current indicator extraction settings and shows whether the provided text (here, the email) would be extracted, confirming the configuration is working as expected.

QUESTION 21
In the Endpoint Data context menu of the Cortex XSIAM endpoints table, where will an analyst be able to determine which users accessed an endpoint via Live Terminal?

A. View Incidents
B. View Actions
C. View Endpoint Policy
D. View Endpoint Logs

Answer: B
Explanation:
Live Terminal sessions are recorded as response actions on the endpoint, and the View Actions pane lists who executed each action, letting you see which users accessed the host.

QUESTION 22
A security analyst has been assigned a ticket from the help desk stating that users are experiencing errors when attempting to open files on a specific network share. These errors state that the file format cannot be opened. IT has verified that the file server is online and functioning, but that all files have unusual extensions attached to them.
The security analyst reviews alerts within Cortex XSIAM and identifies malicious activity related to a possible ransomware attack on the file server. This incident is then escalated to the incident response team for further investigation.
Upon reviewing the incident, the responders confirm that ransomware was successfully executed on the file server. Other details of the attack are noted below:
– An unpatched vulnerability on an externally facing web server was exploited for initial access
– The attackers successfully used Mimikatz to dump sensitive credentials that were used for privilege escalation
– PowerShell was used on a Windows server for additional discovery, as well as lateral movement to other systems
– The attackers executed SystemBC RAT on multiple systems to maintain remote access
– Ransomware payload was downloaded on the file server via an external site, “file.io”
Refer to the scenario to answer this question:
Which forensics artifact collected by Cortex XSIAM will help the responders identify what the attackers were looking for during the discovery phase of the attack?

A. Shell history
B. User access logging
C. PSReadline
D. WordWheelQuery

Answer: D
Explanation:
The WordWheelQuery artifact records Windows search terms (e.g., Explorer/Start-menu searches), revealing exactly what items attackers sought during discovery.

QUESTION 23
A security analyst has been assigned a ticket from the help desk stating that users are experiencing errors when attempting to open files on a specific network share. These errors state that the file format cannot be opened. IT has verified that the file server is online and functioning, but that all files have unusual extensions attached to them.
The security analyst reviews alerts within Cortex XSIAM and identifies malicious activity related to a possible ransomware attack on the file server. This incident is then escalated to the incident response team for further investigation.
Upon reviewing the incident, the responders confirm that ransomware was successfully executed on the file server. Other details of the attack are noted below:
– An unpatched vulnerability on an externally facing web server was exploited for initial access
– The attackers successfully used Mimikatz to dump sensitive credentials that were used for privilege escalation
– PowerShell was used on a Windows server for additional discovery, as well as lateral movement to other systems
– The attackers executed SystemBC RAT on multiple systems to maintain remote access
– Ransomware payload was downloaded on the file server via an external site, “file.io”
Refer to the scenario to answer this question:
The incident responders are attempting to determine why Mimikatz was able to successfully run during the attack.
Which exploit protection profile in Cortex XSIAM should be reviewed to ensure it is configured with an Action Mode of Block?

A. Operating System Exploit Protection
B. Browser Exploits Protection
C. Logical Exploits Protection
D. Known Vulnerable Process Protection

Answer: A
Explanation:
Mimikatz abuses OS-level mechanisms (e.g., reading LSASS memory) rather than a browser or specific vulnerable app. The Operating System Exploit Protection profile governs these behaviors, so it must be set to Block to stop such credential-dumping activity.

QUESTION 24
Two security analysts are collaborating on complex but similar incidents. The first analyst merges the two incidents into one for easier management. The other analyst immediately discovers that the custom incident field values relevant to the investigation are missing.
How can the team retrieve the missing details?

A. Unmerge the incidents to capture the missing details
B. Check the timeline view of the incident.
C. Check the War Room of the destination incident.
D. Examine the incident context of the source incident.

Answer: D
Explanation:
When incidents are merged, custom field values from the source incident aren’t copied into the destination, but they remain in the source incident’s context. Reviewing that context restores the needed details.

QUESTION 25
Which type of analytics will trigger the alert on the image shown?

A. Anomaly
B. Baseline
C. Behavioral
D. Contextual

Answer: A
Explanation:
The chart shows a learned average (baseline) and a spike far above it; this deviation from normal behavior is what the Anomaly analytics detector flags.

QUESTION 26
What can be used to filter out empty values in the query results table?

A. <name of field> != null or <field name> != “”
B. <name of field> != null or <field name> != “NA”
C. <name of field> != empty or <field name> != “”
D. <name of field> != empty or <field name> != “NA”

Answer: A
Explanation:
In XQL you must exclude both nulls and empty strings; using filter field != null or field != “” removes rows where the field is unset or set to an empty string.

QUESTION 27
An alert for malware propagation triggers an incident. The associated playbook isolates the endpoint and notifies the SOC team. What advantages does this approach provide? (Choose two)

A. Reduces mean time to respond (MTTR)
B. Prevents SOC teams from seeing alert metadata
C. Automates critical response actions
D. Allows unrestricted user activity

Answer: AC

QUESTION 28
In the Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR) module, what does “compromised identity” typically indicate?

A. Failed software update
B. Unauthorized access or behavior from a known identity
C. Missing antivirus signature
D. USB device connection

Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Which option allows continuous monitoring and triage of evolving threats?

A. Live terminal execution
B. Threat intelligence API
C. Attack Surface Threat Response Center
D. Asset status logs

Answer: C

QUESTION 30
You are hunting for endpoints that have recently executed PowerShell commands. Which two XQL query steps are appropriate?

A. Use the xdm.process table
B. Filter events by command-line arguments
C. Query the xdm.asset table for policy info
D. Export user reports from SIEM

Answer: AB

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